crayola crayola
  • 03-10-2017
  • Social Studies
contestada

why has music been referred to as a universal language?

Respuesta :

Missycat6
Missycat6 Missycat6
  • 03-10-2017
Because people of all cultures, nationalities, etc understand music as fluently as a second nature to them.
Answer Link
Аноним Аноним
  • 03-10-2017
Hey there!

The answer is "People of all cultures and backgrounds can understand music and be emotional towards it."

Hope it helps!
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

A class of twenty students took a test l. The scores are given here. 43 45 52 53 57 59 63 64 69 69 74 74 76 77 77 81 90 92 95 99 If sophias score was 76 points
Which prefix changes the meaning of bacterial from "relating to or caused by bacteria" to "preventing bacteria"? a.over- b.anti- c.auto- d.extra-
What is the equation of the graph below? A graph shows a parabola that opens up and crosses the x axis at negative two and negative four.
Ken is thinking of a number. nine more than the product of 4 and the number is 73. Find Kens number.
Kristin jogs around a park that has a perimeter of 1/2 mile. Kristin jogged around the park 4 times in 50 minutes. What is the unit rate of Kristin's speed?
The membrane in the ear is named for what musical instrument
The first level of organization of a protein is created by a linear sequence of A) amino acids. B) nucleic acids. C) nucleic bases. D) polymeric peptides.
Write a formal singular command in Spanish with the verb hacer.
Solve inequality 10+4a<-6
Multiply. Write your answer as a fraction in simplest form. 10/11×3/7×1/2 Please explain